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Posted
1 minute ago, Le duke said:


That has never been my understanding.

All human individuals—whether they have an XX, an XY, or an atypical sex chromosome combination—begin development from the same starting point. During early development the gonads of the fetus remain undifferentiated; that is, all fetal genitalia are the same and are phenotypically female. After approximately 6 to 7 weeks of gestation, however, the expression of a gene on the Y chromosome induces changes that result in the development of the testes. Thus, this gene is singularly important in inducing testis development. The production of testosterone at about 9 weeks of gestation results in the development of the reproductive tract and the masculinization (the normal development of male sex characteristics) of the brain and genitalia. In contrast to the role of the fetal testis in differentiation of a male genital tract and external genitalia in utero, fetal ovarian secretions are not required for female sex differentiation. As these details point out, the basic differences between the sexes begin in the womb, and this chapter examines how sex differences develop and change across the lifetime. The committee examined both normal and abnormal routes of development that lead individuals to become males and females and the changes during childhood, reproductive adulthood, and the later stages of life.



https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK222286/#:~:text=During%20early%20development%20the%20gonads,the%20later%20stages%20of%20life.


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I'll have to do some digging but I believe a study done by John Hopkins put to rest this  old theory and it's actually all fetuses have both.  Just a little search produces this. 

; all embryos, regardless of their sex, initially develop structures that have the potential to become either male or female reproductive tracts, meaning they essentially have "both" male and female reproductive tracts in their early development stages before differentiation occurs based on genetic factors. 
 
Explanation:
  • Undifferentiated Stage:
    Early in development, the gonads in an embryo are undifferentiated, meaning they can develop into either testes (male) or ovaries (female) depending on the presence of the Y chromosome. 
     
  • Müllerian and Wolffian Ducts:
    Both male and female embryos possess two sets of ducts called the Müllerian ducts and Wolffian ducts, which are the precursors to the internal reproductive organs. 
     
  • Male Development:
    In a male embryo, the presence of the Y chromosome triggers the development of the testes, which then produce testosterone causing the Wolffian ducts to develop into the male reproductive tract while the Müllerian ducts regress. 
     
  • Female Development:
    In a female embryo, lacking the Y chromosome, the Müllerian ducts develop into the female reproductive tract while the Wolffian ducts naturally degenerate. 
     
 
Key points to remember:
  • All embryos start with the potential for both male and female reproductive organs. 
     
  • The presence of the Y chromosome determines the development of male genitalia. 
     
  • In the absence of a Y chromosome, the embryo will develop female genitalia by default. 
     
 
 
 
 

I Don't Agree With What I Posted

Posted
57 minutes ago, Le duke said:


From the EO:

(d) “Female” means a person belonging, at conception, to the sex that produces the large reproductive cell.
(e) “Male” means a person belonging, at conception, to the sex that produces the small reproductive cell.

All humans are female until ~6 weeks. This is common in many mammals. At roughly the 7th week, the SRY gene triggers the development of testes; until then, all humans are female. So, at the moment of conception, everyone is female.


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Do this individual have a uterus and ovaries?   What controls this?   The genes in the chromosomes?   And are those present at conception?  Of course they are.   So all babies from conception are male or female.    Science man.   You should try it.

mspart

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